FMGE Question Paper.doc

Q 1. All the following are derivatives of the neural crest, except: A. Melanocyte
B. Adrenal medulla
C. Sympathetic ganglia
D. Cauda equina
Ans. D Q 2. Which of the following is true regarding gastrulation: A. Establishes all the three germ layers
B. Occurs at the caudal end of the embryo prior to
its cephalic end
C. Involves the hypoblastic cells of inner cell mass
D. Usually occurs at 4 weeks
Ans. A Q 3. All the following features are seen in neurons from dorsal root
ganglia, except: A. They have centrally located nuclei
B. They are derived from neural crest cells
C. They are multipolar
D. They contain lipofuscin granules
Ans. C Q 4. Elastic cartilage is found in: A. Auditory tube
B. Nasal septum
C. Articular cartilage
D. Costal cartilage
Ans. A Q 5. The weight of the upper limb is transmitted to the axial skeleton by: A. Coracoclavicular ligament
B. Coracoacromial ligament
C. Costoclavicular ligament
D. Coracohumeral ligament
Ans. A Q 6. The superficial external pudendal artery is a branch of: A. Femoral artery
B. External iliac artery
C. Internal iliac artery
D. Aorta
Ans. A Q 7. Diaphragmatic hernia can occur through all the following, except: A. Esophageal opening
B. Costovertebral triangle
C. Costal and sternal attachment of diaphragm
D. Inferior vena cava opening
Ans. D Q 8. Ureteric constriction is seen at all the following positions, except: A. Ureteropelvic junction
B. Ureterovesicle junction
C. Crossing of iliac artery
D. Ischial spine
Ans. D Q 9. All the following are true regarding blood supply to the kidney ,
except: A. Stellate veins drain superficial zone
B. It is site of portosystemic anastomosis
C. The renal artery divides into five segmental arteries before entering
the hilum
D. Its segmental arteries are end-arteries
Ans. B Q 10. A patient with external hemorrhoids develops pain while passing
stools. The nerve mediating this pain is: A. Hypogastric nerve
B. Pudendal nerve
C. Splachnic visceral nerve
D. Sympathetic plexus
Ans. B Q 11. Which of the following muscles is supplied by mandibular nerve: A. Masseter
B. Buccinator
C. Tensor veli palati
D. Posterior belly of digastric
Ans. C Q 12. The sensoy supply of the palate is through all of the following,
except: A. Facial nerve
B. Hypoglossal nerve
C. Glossopharyngeal nerve
D. Maxillary division of trigeminal nerve
Ans. B Q 13. All of the following are features of large intestine, except: A. Large intestine secretes acidic mucus which helps in formation of stools B. It is a site of mucocutaneous junction
C. Its epithelium contains globlets cells in large numbers
D. Absorbs salt and water
Ans. A Q 14. In flexion and abduction of shoulder all of the following structures
are compressed except: A. Subacromial bursa
B. Long head of biceps
C. Suprascapular nerve
D. Supraspinatus tendon
Ans. C Physiology Q 15. SI unit for measuring blood pressure is: A. Torr
B. mrnHg
C. kPa
D. Bar
Ans. C Q 16. Glucose mediated insulin release is mediated through: A. ATP dependent K+ channels
B. cAMP
C. Carrier modulators
D. Receptor phosphorylation
Ans. A Q 17. Sudden decrease in serum calcium is associated with: A. Increased thyroxine and PTH secretion
B. Increased phosphate
C. Increased excitability of muscle and nerve
D. Cardiac conduction abnormalities
Ans. C Q 18. Ablation of the âE~somatosensory area 1âE of the cerebral cortex
leads to: A. Total loss of pain sensation
B. Total loss of touch sensation
C. Loss of tactile localization but not of two point discrimination
D. Loss of tactile localization and two point discrimination
Ans. D Q 19. Non shivering thermogenesis in adults is due to: A. Thyroid hormone
B. Brown fat between the shoulders
C. Adrenaline from adrenal medulla
D. Muscle metabolism
Ans. C Q 20. In metabolic acidosis, which of the following changes are seen: A. Increased K+excretion
B. Decreased K+ excretion
C. Increased Na+ excretion
D. Increased Na+ reabsorption
Ans. B Q 21. Tropomyosin: A. Helps in the fusion of actin and myosin
B. Covers myosin and prevents attachments of actin and myosin
C. Slides over myosin
D. Causes Ca2+ release
Ans. B Q 22. TRH stimulation testing is useful in diagnosis of disorders of
following hormones: A. Insulin
B. ACTH
C. Prolactin
D. PTH
Ans. C Q 23. During muscular exercise all are seen except: A. Increase in blood flow to muscles
B. Stroke volume increases
C. O2 dissociation curve shifts to left
D. O2 consumption increases
Ans. C Biochemistry Q 24. âE?All enzymes are not proteins.âE This statement is justified by: A. All enzymes do not follow the Michaelis Menten hypothesis
B. RNAs act as ribozymes
C. Antibodies take part in the catalysis of many reactions
D. Metals are involved in attachment to enzymes and catalysts
Ans. B Q 25. Enzymes mediating transfer of one molecule to another are: A. Transferases
B. Oxidases
C. Lysases
D. Peptidases
Ans. A Q 26. In which of the following reactions is magnesium required: A. Na+K+ ATPase
B. Dismutase
C. Phosphatase
D. Aldolase
Ans. A Q 27. In oxidative phosphorylation, the ATP production and respiratory
chain are linked by: A. Chemical methods
B. Physical methods
C. Chemiosmotic methods
D. Conformational changes
Q Ans. C Q 28. Thiamine level is best monitored by: A. Transketolase level in RBC
B. Thiamine level in blood
C. G-6-PD activity
D. Reticulocytosis
Ans. A Q 29. Vitamin B12 and folic acid supplementation in megaloblastic anemia
leads to the improvement of anemia due to: A. Increased DNA synthesis in bone marrow
B. Increased hemoglobin production
C. Erythroid hyperplasia
D. Increased iron absorption
Ans. A Q 30. Nitric oxide synthase: A. Is inhibited by Ca++
B. Catalyses a dioxygenase reaction
C. Accepts electrons from NADH
D. Requires NADH, FAD, FMN & heme iron
Ans. D Q 31. Phenylalanine is the precursor of all the following, except: A. Tyrosine
B. Epinephrine
C. Thyroxine
D. Melatonin
Ans. D Q 32. In a well fed state, acetyl CoA obtained from diet is least used in
the synthesis of: A. Palmity CoA
B. Citrate
C. Acetoacetate
D. Oxalosuccinate
Ans. C Q 33. Substrate level phosphorylation in citric acid cycle is seen in the
conversion of: -ketoglutaratea A. Acetoacetate to
B. Succinyl CoA to succinate
C. Fumarate to malate
D. Succinate to fumarate
Ans. B Q 34. Apo B48 and apo B100 are expressed as two different apo-proteins
because of differe A. RNA editing
B. RNA splicing
C. Chromosomal loci
D. Apo-B gene
Ans. A Q 35. All the following can be used to detect mutation, except: A. Single strand conformational polymorphism
B. Ligase chain reaction
C. Polymerase chain reaction
D. DNA sequencing
Ans. B Q 36. Which of the following is true regarding hydroxy ethyl starch: A. It is an anesthetic agent
B. It is a plasma expander
C. It is a crystalloid
D. Used as a nutritional agent
Ans. B Q 37. Elasticity of the corneal layer of SKIN is due to the presence of: A. Histidine
B. Keratin
C. Lysine
D. Cysteine
Ans. B Q 38. In dividing cells, spindle is formed by: A. Ubiquitin
B. Tubulin
C. Laminin
D. Keratin
Ans. B Q 39. Entropy in a biological system is constant because: A. It is an open system
B. It is a closed system
C. It is a governed by vitalism
D. Has exothermic-endothermic reactions
Ans. D Q 40. Which of the following is true regarding a system which favours
oscillatory responses: A. Has proportional component
B. Has a greater gain
C. Has a lesser gain
D. Positive FEEDBACK system
Ans. D Q 41. Highest binding of iron is seen with: A. Transferrin
B. Ferritin
C. Haemoglobin
D. Ceruloplasmin
Ans. C Pathology Q 42. The epitheloid cell and multinucleated gaint cells of granulomatous
inflammation are derived from: A. Basophils
B. Eosinophils
C. CD4 T lymphocytes
D. Monocytes-macrophages
Ans. D Q 43. The following host tissue responses can be seen in acute infection,
except: A. Exudation
B. Vasodilation
C. Margination
D. Granuloma formation
Ans. D Q 44. The following feature is common to both cytotoxic T cells and NK
cells: A. Synthesize antibody
B. Require antibodies to be present for action
C. Effective against virus infected cells
D. Recognize antigen in association with HLA class II markers
Ans. C Q 45. In the intra-epithelial region of the mucosa of intestine the
predominant cell population is that of: A. B cell
B. T cells
C. Plasma cells
D. Basophils
Ans. B Q 46. In primary tuberculosis, all of the following may be seen except: A. Cavitation
B. Caseation
C. Calcification
D. Langerhan giant cell
Ans. A Q 47. A mylocardial infarct showing early granulation tissue has most
likely occurred: A. Less than 1 hours
B. Within 24 hours
C. Within 1 week
D. Within 1 month
Ans. D Q 48. A 10 year old boy, died of acute rheumatic fever. All the following
can be expected at autopsy except: A. Ashoff nodules
B. Rupture of chordae tendinae
C. McCallum patch
D. Fibrinous pericarditis
Ans. B Q 49. All of the following are seen in asbestosis except: A. Diffuse alveolar damage
B. Calcified pleural plaques
C. Diffuse pulmonary interstitial fibrosis
D. Mesotheliomas
Ans. A Q 50. Macrophages containing large quantities of undigested and partial
digested bacteria in intestine are seen in: A. WhippleâEs disease
B. Amyloidosis
C. Immunoproliferative small instetinal disease
D. Vibrio cholerae infection
Ans. A Q 51. The histological features of celiac disease include all of the
following, except: A. Crypt hyperplasia
B. Increase in thickness of the mucosa
C. Increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes
D. Increase in inflammatory cells in lamina propria
Ans. B Q 52. In a chronic alcoholic all the following may be seen in the liver
except: A. Fatty degeneration
B. Chronic hepatitis
C. Granuloma formation
D. Cholestatic hepatitis
Ans. C Q 53. Crescent formation is characteristic of the following glomerular
disease: A. Minimal change disease
B. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
C. Focal and segmental glomerulosclerosis
D. Rapidly non prgressive glomerulonephritis
Ans. B Q 54. Necrotizing papillitis ma